Question 1 (i)
For a body to be in dynamic equilibrium:
(b) Its acceleration must be zero.
Explanation:
A body in dynamic equilibrium moves with uniform velocity. Therefore, its acceleration is zero.
Complete ICSE Class X Physics 2026 question paper with accurate, step-by-step solutions.

(Attempt all questions from this section)
For a body to be in dynamic equilibrium:
(b) Its acceleration must be zero.
Explanation:
A body in dynamic equilibrium moves with uniform velocity. Therefore, its acceleration is zero.
The energy transformation that takes place during photosynthesis is:
(c) Light energy to chemical energy.
Explanation:
During photosynthesis, plants convert light energy from the Sun into chemical energy stored in food.
The velocity ratio of a block and tackle system having two pulleys, with effort applied upwards, is:
(c) 3
Explanation:
When the effort is applied upwards, one end of the rope is fixed to the movable block. The number of supporting rope segments is three, so the velocity ratio is 3.
The diagram shows a ray of light travelling from medium A to medium B.

The refractive index of medium B with respect to medium A is:
(d) \frac{\sin 60^\circ}{\sin 45^\circ}
Explanation:

The angle of incidence = 60° and
the angle of refraction = 45°.
Therefore, refractive index of B with respect to A = \frac{\sin 60^\circ}{\sin 45^\circ}.
A blackened thermometer bulb placed beyond the red end of a spectrum shows a rise in temperature due to:
(a) Infrared radiations.
Explanation:
Infrared radiations lie beyond the red end of the visible spectrum and produce a strong heating effect.
A cyclist stops pedalling while moving along a frictionless hilly road. Which quantity remains constant?
(d) Total mechanical energy remains constant.
Explanation:
In the absence of friction, kinetic energy and potential energy interchange while their sum remains constant.
The distance of a virtual image formed by a lens of focal length 15 cm can never exceed:
(d) 15 cm.
Explanation:
For a concave lens, the virtual image is always formed between the optical centre and the principal focus. Hence its distance cannot exceed the focal length.
Assertion: Tiny air molecules scatter blue light more than red light.
Reason: The refractive index of air is greater for blue light than for red light.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
Explanation:
Blue light is scattered more strongly because scattering varies inversely as the fourth power of wavelength. The stated refractive-index relation does not explain this scattering.
Study the circuit diagram containing lamps L1, L2, L3 and L4.

Which lamp can fail without interrupting the glow of the other lamps?
(b) L2
Explanation:
L2 is connected in a separate parallel branch. Its failure does not break the paths through the other lamps.
Three cylindrical jars A, B and C contain equal volumes of water up to different heights. Their radii satisfy rB < rA < rC.
Which jar produces the shrillest sound when air is blown across its mouth?
(b) B
Explanation:
For the same volume of water, the jar with the smallest radius has the greatest water height and therefore the shortest air column. A shorter air column produces a higher frequency and a shriller sound.
When the length of a stretched metallic wire is doubled, its specific heat:
(d) Remains the same.
Explanation:
Specific heat capacity is a property of the material and does not depend on its dimensions.
The equivalent resistance of two resistors R1 and R2 connected in parallel is:
(b) \frac{\mathrm{R}_1\mathrm{R}_2}{\mathrm{R}_1+\mathrm{R}_2}
Explanation:
For two parallel resistors, \frac{1}{\mathrm{R}}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_1}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_2}.
The diagram shows two compasses near a straight wire carrying current into the plane of the paper.

Which compass is correctly aligned?
(a) Only compass 1.
Explanation:
For current into the plane of the paper (×), the right-hand thumb rule gives a clockwise magnetic field.
Compass 1 is tangent to the field and points in the correct direction, whereas compass 2 points opposite to the field direction.
Therefore, only compass 1 is correctly aligned.
Equal masses of substances A, B and C, each at its melting point, take 5 minutes, 7 minutes and 3 minutes respectively to melt when heated at the same rate. Which has the highest specific latent heat of fusion?
(b) B
Explanation:
For equal masses heated at the same rate, the substance taking the longest time absorbs the greatest latent heat.
A lithium atom has 3 electrons, 3 protons and 4 neutrons. Its mass number is:
(c) 7
Explanation:
Mass number = number of protons + number of neutrons = 3 + 4 = 7.
Complete the following by choosing the correct answers from the bracket:
(a) A car is moving in uniform circular motion. The direction of friction between the tyres and the path is …………… [towards the centre / tangential to the path].
(b) When a ray of light passes from a denser to a rarer medium, its wavelength …………… [decreases / increases].
(c) The lid of a calorimeter minimises heat loss by …………… [convection / radiation].
(d) Quality of sound depends on its …………… [amplitude / waveform].
(e) A substance whose resistance becomes almost negligible at a temperature near absolute zero is called a …………… [semiconductor / superconductor].
(f) …………… radiation deviates minimum in a magnetic field [Alpha / Beta].
(a) tangential to the path
(b) increases
(c) convection
(d) waveform
(e) superconductor
(f) Alpha
State two factors on which the position of Center of Gravity of a body depends.
The position of the centre of gravity of a body depends mainly on two factors:
Explanation:
The position of the centre of gravity depends on the shape of the body and on how its mass is distributed. For example, two rods may have the same shape and size, but if one rod is uniform and the other is heavier at one end, their centres of gravity will be at different positions.
(a) In which case (1st or 2nd) was the potato closer to her hand applying the effort? (Assume normal reaction of the surface of the potato is same in both cases)
(b) Give a reason for your answer in (a) above.
(a) The potato was closer to her hand in Case 1.
(b) The cutter acts as a Class II lever, in which the load lies between the fulcrum and the effort. When the potato is placed closer to the hand applying effort, it is farther from the fulcrum, so the load arm becomes longer. For a fixed effort arm, a longer load arm requires greater effort to cut. Since E1 > E2, the potato must have been closer to her hand in Case 1.
The graph below shows the variation of image distance (v) with the object distance (u) when an object is kept in front of a lens.

(a) Identify the type of lens used.
(b) What would be the magnification (more than 1 / less than 1 / equal to 1) if the object is placed between F and 2F of the above lens?
(a) The lens used is a convex lens.
(b) If the object is placed between F and 2F, the magnification will be more than 1.
Explanation:
(a) The graph shows that for an object placed in front of the lens, a real image is formed on the other side and the image distance changes according to the position of the object. This behaviour is shown by a convex lens.
(b) For a convex lens, when the object is placed between F and 2F, the image is formed beyond 2F. The image is real, inverted and magnified. Therefore, the magnification is more than 1.
A resistance R is connected across a cell with a switch and a rheostat in series. A voltmeter is connected parallel across the cell. Current in the circuit is increased using the rheostat.
(a) How will the voltmeter reading change? (increase / decrease / remain the same)
(b) Justify your answer stated in (a) above.
(a) The voltmeter reading decreases.
(b) The voltmeter reading is given by: V = ε – Ir
where I is the current flowing in the circuit, ε is the emf of the cell and r is the internal resistance of the cell.
When the rheostat is adjusted to increase the current in the circuit, the current drawn from the cell becomes larger. Due to the internal resistance of the cell, a greater potential drop occurs inside the cell.
As a result, the terminal voltage of the cell decreases. Since the voltmeter measures this terminal voltage across the cell, its reading decreases.
(a) Define natural vibrations.
(b) How is this vibration different from damped vibrations in terms of their amplitudes?
(a) The periodic vibrations of a body in the absence of any external force on it are called natural (or free) vibrations.
(b) In natural vibrations, the amplitude remains constant because there is no loss of energy, while in damped vibrations the amplitude gradually decreases with time due to energy loss caused by the presence of resistive force.
A metal piece of thermal capacity 40 J K−1 absorbs 800 J of heat. Calculate the rise in the temperature of this metal piece.
Given,
Thermal capacity = 40 J K−1
Heat absorbed = 800 J
Let the rise in temperature be T.
Temperature rise = \frac{\text{Heat absorbed}}{\text{Thermal capacity}}
T = \frac{800}{40} = 20 K
Since a rise of 1 K = 1°C, the rise in temperature is also 20°C.
Hence, the rise in the temperature of the metal piece is 20°C.
In an AC generator, name the part which has the following functions:
(a) intensifies the magnetic field.
(b) maintains electrical contact between the rotating parts and the external circuit.
(a) Soft iron core
(b) Carbon brushes
Give two differences between nuclear fission and nuclear fusion.
| Nuclear fission | Nuclear fusion | |
|---|---|---|
| (a) | Nuclear fission is the process of breaking a heavy nucleus into two nearly equal fragments with the release of energy. | Nuclear fusion is the process of combining light nuclei to form a larger nucleus at a very high temperature and pressure with the release of energy. |
| (b) | This reaction is possible at ordinary temperature and ordinary pressure. | This reaction is possible only at a very high temperature (approximately 107 K) and a very high pressure. |
A monochromatic ray strikes the surface of identical prisms (A, B and C) at different angles of incidence. The diagram below shows their refracted rays. Study the path of these refracted rays and identify in which of the diagrams:

(a) the angle of incidence is maximum.
(b) the angle of incidence is minimum.
(c) the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of emergence.
(a) The angle of incidence is maximum for prism B.
(b) The angle of incidence is minimum for prism A.
(c) The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of emergence for prism C.
Explanation:
For identical prisms, a larger angle of incidence produces a refracted ray inside the prism making a larger angle with the normal. Hence, diagram B corresponds to maximum incidence, while diagram A corresponds to minimum incidence.
When the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of emergence, the path of the ray through the prism is symmetrical, and the refracted ray inside the prism becomes parallel to the base. This is shown in diagram C.
(Attempt any four questions)
A ray of light enters a glass block from air and comes out from the opposite surface. If the angle of refraction at the first surface is not the same as the angle of incidence at the second surface, then:
(a) What is the product of the ratio sin i / sin r at the first surface and at the second surface?
(b) State whether the opposite surfaces are parallel or not parallel.
(c) How did you reach the conclusion in (b) above?
(a) At the first surface, from air to glass:
\frac{\sin \mathrm{i_1}}{\sin \mathrm{r_1}} = μ
At the second surface, from glass to air:
\frac{\sin \mathrm{i_2}}{\sin \mathrm{r_2}}=\frac{1}{\text{μ}}
Therefore, the product is \mu\times\frac{1}{\text{μ}}=1.
(b) The opposite surfaces are not parallel.
(c) If the opposite surfaces were parallel, the angle of refraction at the first surface would equal the angle of incidence at the second surface. Since these angles are not equal, the surfaces cannot be parallel.
A type of glass block has a refractive index of 1.8.
(a) Calculate the speed of light in this glass. (Given speed of light in air = 3 × 108 m s−1)
(b) If the width of this block is doubled, then what will be the speed of light in the block?
(a) Given, refractive index of the glass block = 1.8 and speed of light in air = 3 × 108 m s−1.
Speed of light in glass = \frac{3\times10^8}{1.8} = 1.67 × 108 m s−1.
(b) If the width of the glass block is doubled, the speed of light does not change because it depends on the refractive index of the material, not its thickness.
Therefore, the speed remains 1.67 × 108 m s−1.
(a) Name the electromagnetic radiation used to detect fake currency.
(b) Redraw the diagram given below and complete the path of the light ray AB through the glass prism till it emerges out of the prism. Critical angle of the glass is 42°.

(a) Ultraviolet (UV) radiation
(b) The completed diagram is shown below

Explanation:
The ray AB enters the prism normally at point B, so it passes straight into the prism without bending. It then strikes the slant face with an angle of incidence of 60°. Since 60° is greater than the critical angle of 42°, the ray undergoes total internal reflection. It then reaches the opposite face with an angle of incidence of 30°, which is less than the critical angle, and refracts out of the prism.
An object placed in front of a convex lens forms an image of the same size on a screen. Moving the object 12 cm closer to the lens results in the formation of a real image which is three times the size of the object. Calculate the focal length of the lens.
Initially, the real image is the same size, so magnification = −1 and u = −v.
From the lens formula:
\frac{1}{\mathrm{f}}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{v}}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{u}}=\frac{2}{\mathrm{v}}
Therefore, v = 2f.
After moving the object 12 cm closer, u′ = u + 12 and magnification = −3. Hence, v′ = 3v − 36.
For the final position:
\frac{1}{\mathrm{f}}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{v'}}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{u'}}=\frac{4}{\mathrm{v'}}
Therefore, f = v′/4 = (3v − 36)/4.
Using v = 2f:
f = \frac{6\mathrm{f}-36}{4}
Hence, f = 18 cm.
(a) Atmospheric temperature after a hailstorm is greater than the temperature during the hailstorm. State True or False.
(b) Which thermal physical quantity of a frying pan changes by making its base heavier?
(c) State the principle of Calorimetry.
(a) False
Explanation:
After the hailstorm, ice absorbs the heat energy required for melting from the surroundings, so the temperature of the surroundings falls further.
(b) Making the base heavier increases its heat capacity because heat capacity depends on mass.
(c) The principle of calorimetry states that when a hot body is brought in contact with a cold body, heat lost by the hot body equals heat gained by the cold body, provided there is no heat loss to the environment.
The given graph represents the cooling curve of a liquid.

(a) State the freezing temperature of the liquid.
(b) Name the phase change happening at the region QR.
(c) In which state (solid / liquid) does the above substance liberate heat at a faster rate? Justify.
(a) The freezing temperature is 20°C because the graph becomes horizontal at this temperature.
(b) The phase change in region QR is freezing, where the liquid changes into solid.
(c) The substance liberates heat faster in the solid state. The graph after point R has a steeper slope, indicating a faster decrease in temperature than in the liquid state before point Q.
The diagram shows a wheel with a handle. Two forces, F1 and F2 of equal magnitudes are acting on the handle as shown in the diagram.

(a) Which force produces negative moment?
(b) Is the wheel in equilibrium? (Yes or No)
(c) Justify your answer stated in (b).
(a) Force F1 produces the negative moment because it tends to rotate the wheel clockwise.
(b) No, the wheel is not in equilibrium.
(c) For equilibrium, the sum of clockwise moments must equal the sum of anticlockwise moments about the centre O. Although F1 and F2 have equal magnitudes, their perpendicular distances from the centre are different. Therefore, their moments are not equal and opposite, the net moment is not zero, and the wheel is not in equilibrium.
(a) Name the unit of work done used on the subatomic scale.
(b) To which class of lever does a pair of scissors belong?
(c) A stone is tied to a string and displaced from A to B by application of constant force F in three different ways as shown below.

Arrange the three cases in ascending order of the work done by the force. (Given AJB is a semicircle, θ < 90° and AB = 20 m)
(a) electron volt (eV)
(b) Class I lever
(c) Work done is W = Force × Displacement × cos θ.
In Case 1, force is perpendicular to displacement, so work done is zero.
In Case 2, force acts along displacement, so work done is maximum.
In Case 3, θ < 90°, so the work done is greater than Case 1 but less than Case 2.
Therefore, the ascending order is: Case 1 < Case 3 < Case 2.
A ball of mass 20 g falls from a height of 45 m. It rebounds from the ground to a height of 40 m. Calculate:
(a) initial potential energy of the ball.
(b) the speed of the ball at which it hits the ground.
(c) the loss in kinetic energy on striking the ground.
[g = 10 m s−2]
Given, Mass (m) = 20 g = 0.02 kg,
Initial height (h1) = 45 m,
Rebound height (h2) = 40 m and g = 10 m s−2.
(a) Initial potential energy = mgh1 = 0.02 × 10 × 45 = 9 J.
(b) Just before hitting the ground:
\frac{1}{2}\mathrm{mv^2}=9
v = \sqrt{900} = 30 m s−1.
(c) Kinetic energy after rebound = 0.02 × 10 × 40 = 8 J.
Loss in kinetic energy = 9 − 8 = 1 J.
To lift a load of 30 kgf, Suhas uses a single fixed pulley while Radha uses a single movable pulley. The displacement of efforts in both cases is equal. In an ideal situation calculate the ratio of:
(a) the efforts in the two cases.
(b) the potential energy gained by the loads in the two cases.
(c) the efficiencies in the two cases.
Given,
Load = 30 kgf
(a) Mechanical advantage (MA) of a machine is:
\mathrm{MA}=\frac{\mathrm{Load}}{\mathrm{Effort}}
For a single fixed pulley, MA = 1.
\mathrm{E_1}=\frac{\mathrm{Load}}{\mathrm{MA}}=\frac{30}{1}=30\ \mathrm{kgf}
For a single movable pulley, MA = 2.
\mathrm{E_2}=\frac{\mathrm{Load}}{\mathrm{MA}}=\frac{30}{2}=15\ \mathrm{kgf}
Ratio of efforts = E1 : E2 = 30 : 15 = 2 : 1.
Hence, the ratio of the efforts in the two cases is 2 : 1.
(b) Potential energy gained = Load × Height raised.
If the effort displacement is the same:
Let the load in the fixed-pulley case rise through height h. The load in the movable-pulley case rises through h/2.
Ratio of potential energies:
\frac{30\times\mathrm{h}}{30\times\frac{\mathrm{h}}{2}}=\frac{2}{1}=2:1
Hence, the ratio of the potential energies gained by the loads is 2 : 1.
(c) In an ideal machine, efficiency = 100% for both pulleys.
Therefore, the ratio of their efficiencies is 1 : 1.
(a) One end of a plastic foot ruler is held tightly at the edge of a table and the other end is plucked. Name the vibrations produced in the ruler.
(b) Now the ruler is pushed inside partially and plucked again from its free end. State with a reason whether the frequency of vibration increases or decreases.
(a) The ruler produces natural vibrations.
(b) The frequency increases because pushing the ruler further inside decreases the length of its free vibrating part. A shorter vibrating length oscillates more rapidly.
Two persons A and B are standing in front of a cliff in the same line, 170 m apart, as shown in the diagram.

Person B fires a gun and hears the echo in 3 s. Then person A, standing in front of B, fires the gun. (Speed of sound in air = 340 m s−1)
(a) Calculate: (1) the distance of B from the cliff; (2) the minimum time in which B hears the gunshot fired by A.
(b) Fill in the blank: The echo is softer than the original sound due to the decrease in …………… [amplitude / frequency] of the wave.
Given
(a) (1) Distance of B from the cliff = \frac{340\times3}{2} = 510 m.
(a) (2) Minimum time = \frac{170}{340} = 0.5 s.
(b) The echo is softer (less loud) than the original sound due to the decrease in amplitude of the wave.
Bulb A rated 160 W, 40 V and Bulb B rated 40 W, 40 V are connected as shown in the diagram.

(a) Calculate the ratio V1 : V2.
(b) If bulb A fuses, the current in the circuit remains the same. State True or False.
(a) Resistance of bulb A = \frac{40^2}{160} = 10 Ω.
Resistance of bulb B = \frac{40^2}{40} = 40 Ω.
Since the bulbs are in series, potential difference divides in the ratio of resistance.
V1 : V2 = 10 : 40 = 1 : 4.
(b) False
Explanation:
If bulb A fuses, the circuit becomes open and the current becomes zero.
The reverse side of a three-pin plug with incorrect connection of wires is shown below.

(a) Identify the fault in the above connection.
(b) Mention a risk factor involved if the user operates the appliance without correcting it.
(c) Will the appliance function in the present situation? (Yes or No)
(a) The live red wire is connected to the earth terminal, and the green earth wire is connected to the live terminal. The live and earth wires should be interchanged.
(b) The appliance’s outer metallic body may become live, creating a risk of electric shock.
(c) No, the appliance will not function because the wiring connections are incorrect.
In the combinations of resistors shown below, calculate:

(a) the resistance across AB when switch S is open.
(b) the resistance across AB when switch S is closed.
(a) When the switch is open, the middle connection does not join the two branches. Therefore, the circuit has two separate branches in parallel. In each branch, the 12 Ω and 6 Ω resistors are in series.

For the top branch:
R1 = 12 + 6 = 18 Ω
For the bottom branch:
R2 = 12 + 6 = 18 Ω
Since R1 and R2 are in parallel:
\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{R_1}}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{R_2}}
or, \frac{1}{\mathrm{R}}=\frac{1}{18}+\frac{1}{18}=\frac{2}{18}=\frac{1}{9}
Therefore, R = 9 Ω.
Hence, the resistance across AB when switch S is open is 9 Ω.
(b) When switch S is closed, the midpoints are connected. The circuit is rearranged into two parallel combinations connected in series.

For the left combination containing 12 Ω and 6 Ω:
\frac{1}{\mathrm{R_1}}=\frac{1}{12}+\frac{1}{6}=\frac{1}{12}+\frac{2}{12}=\frac{3}{12}=\frac{1}{4}
Therefore, R1 = 4 Ω.
Similarly, for the right combination:
\frac{1}{\mathrm{R_2}}=\frac{1}{12}+\frac{1}{6}=\frac{1}{12}+\frac{2}{12}=\frac{3}{12}=\frac{1}{4}
Therefore, R2 = 4 Ω.
These two combinations are in series:
R = R1 + R2 = 4 + 4 = 8 Ω.
Hence, the resistance across AB when switch S is closed is 8 Ω.
An electric iron rated 1100 W, 220 V is operated for 5 hours. Calculate:
(a) the minimum rating of the fuse required.
(b) the energy consumed in kWh.
(c) the cost of the energy consumed, if the rate is ₹10 per unit.
Given, power (P) = 1100 W, voltage (V) = 220 V and time (t) = 5 h.
(a) Operating current = \frac{\text{P}}{\text{V}} = \frac{1100}{220} = 5 A.
The fuse rating should be slightly higher than the operating current. Therefore, the minimum suitable fuse rating is 6 A.
(b) Energy consumed = Power × time
= 1100 × 5
= 5500 Wh = 5.5 kWh.
(c) Cost of energy consumption = 5.5 × ₹ 10 = ₹ 55.
When the magnet shown in the diagram is moved towards the coil at a speed of 5 m s−1, the galvanometer shows a certain deflection to the right.

How will the direction and magnitude of deflection change when the coil also moves with a speed of 5 m s−1:
(a) in the direction of motion of the magnet?
(b) in the opposite direction to the motion of the magnet?
The galvanometer deflection depends on the rate of change of magnetic flux and hence on the relative motion between the magnet and coil.
(a) The magnet and coil move in the same direction at the same speed, so there is no relative motion. No current is induced and the galvanometer shows no deflection.
(b) The magnet and coil move in opposite directions, so their relative speed is 10 m s−1. The direction of deflection remains to the right, but its magnitude increases.
(a) (i) Which element is used in the lining of the special aprons worn by workers in nuclear power plants?
(ii) Why is this element preferred?
(b) 2411Na emits a nuclear radiation which does not alter the mass number but is deflected by a magnetic field.
(a) (i) Lead is used in the lining of the special aprons.
(ii) It is preferred because it is a dense metal and absorbs harmful nuclear radiations effectively.
(b) (1) The emitted radiation is beta (β) radiation.
(2) Radioactive decay equation:
{}^{24}_{11}\mathrm{Na}\longrightarrow{}^{24}_{12}\mathrm{Mg}+{}^{0}_{-1}\text{β}
In beta decay, the atomic number increases by 1 while the mass number remains unchanged.
No questions match these filters.